Terezia Palanki (terepala) from ba25lab04.utm.edu at 09/16/96 11:35AM
comment
    You discussed in class that at one time Byron was the most important poet in the Romatic Period but now he is not thought to be nearly as important as Wordsworth, Coleridge, Blake and others. Is the reason for this because the literary critics over time have "changed" the definition of "romantic?" When I hear the word "romantic," I think of two people in love such as Julia and Juan in "Don Juan," not of nature. Is it possible that the people of that time also saw it that way? That Byron's poetry was more real to them and easier to understand therefore he was more popular?