ZOOL. 252 EXAM QUESTIONS - BLOOD

[1-9] [10-19] [20-29] [30-39] [40-49] [50-59] [60-69]

[BATCH 931]

[BATCH 971]

[BATCH 972]

[BATCH 961]

[BATCH 941]

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BATCH 931

1-9

1. Blood is a tissue consisting mostly of:
   1. cells
   2. extracellular matrix [top]

2. Why does a red blood cell eject its nucleus?
   1. to reduce O₂ diffusion distance
   2. to reduce weight so it circulates more easily
   3. so it can pack in more hemoglobin
   4. to reduce likelihood of sickling
   5. to improve clotting ability [top]

3. Anemia is always caused by iron deficiency.
   1. true
   2. false [top]

4. Which cell count is the best indicator of recent rate of RBC production?
   1. erythrocyte
   2. reticulocyte
   3. erythroblast
   4. proerythroblast
   5. hemocytoblast [top]

5. Which cells routinely exit the bloodstream by slipping out of capillaries?
   1. erythrocytes only
   2. lymphocytes only
   3. granulocytes only
   4. agranulocytes only
   5. most leukocytes [top]

6. Agranulocytes:
   1. have no granules whatsoever
   2. have tiny granules that are difficult to see
   3. are all phagocytes
   4. are smaller than erythrocytes
   5. are found only in lymph nodes [top]

7. A hormone associated with maturation of white blood cells is:
   1. interferon
   2. erythropoietin
   3. interleukin
   4. perforin
   5. thrombopoietin [top]

8. Which is a role of albumin?
   1. helps maintain water content of blood
   2. stimulates clotting
   3. nonspecific defense
   4. O₂ transport
   5. CO₂ transport [top]

9. Describe the leukocytes, including which type is most numerous, least numerous, largest, differences in staining characteristics, differences in organelles, and of course differences in function. [top]

10-19

10. The excess bilirubin associated with jaundice often results from:
    1. overproduction of bile by the liver
    2. accumulation of hemoglobin breakdown products
    3. excess anti-RH antibody production
    4. inactivated complement proteins
    5. oversecretion of neurotransmitter by the rubrospinal nucleus [top]

11. Sources of blood cells in a fetus include:
    1. bone marrow only
    2. yolk sac only
    3. yolk sac, liver, and kidney
    4. yolk sac, spleen, and liver
    5. bone marrow and kidney [top]

12. What is unique about fetal hemoglobin?
    1. it is made by the yolk sac
    2. it provides protection against attack by the mother’s immune system
    3. it is yellow in color
    4. it has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin
    5. it can cross the placenta [top]

13. All anemics have this in common -
    1. low O₂ in blood
    2. low CO₂ in blood
    3. low number of RBCs
    4. Vit. B₁₂ deficiency
    5. low amount of hemoglobin [top]

BATCH 971

14. The composition of blood includes which of the following:
    1. plasma proteins
    2. erythrocytes
    3. leukocytes
    4. platelets
    5. all of the above [top]

15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of erythrocytes?
    1. biconcave disc
    2. anucleate
    3. no mitochondria
    4. ability to deform and reform
    5. none of the above [top]

16. During hematopoiesis, an erythrocyte precursor form that enters the blood and is a useful marker for estimating the RBC production rate is the:

1. hemocytoblast
2. erythroblast
3. normoblast
4. reticulocyte
5. none of the above [top]

17. The one factor most important to regulation of erythropoiesis is:
    1. serotonin
    2. bilirubin
    3. erythropoietin
    4. ferritin
    5. none of the above [top]

18. The normal hematocrit for an adult male is:
    1. 30-35%
    2. 35-40%
    3. 40-45%
    4. 50-55%
    5. none of the above [top]

19. Why are B vitamins important to the overall process of erythropoiesis?
    1. essential to DNA synthesis
    2. aid transport of iron
    3. decrease tissue oxygen demand
    4. increase ferritin production
    5. none of the above [top] [10]

20-29

20. Outline the hormonal regulation of erythropoiesis. [top]

BATCH 972

21. Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
    1. coagulation
    2. fibrinolysis
    3. vascular spasm
    4. platelet plug formation
    5. none of the above [top]

22. Which of the following is not considered a "formed element" of the blood"?
    1. erythrocytes
    2. leukocytes
    3. platelets
    4. albumin
    5. none of the above [top]

23. A flexible, anucleate cell with a large surface area is a:
    1. neutrophil
    2. monocyte
    3. erythrocyte
    4. leukocyte
    5. none of the above [top]

24. The occurrence or prevalence of the various white blood cells decreases from 55-60% of all white blood cells to less that 1%. The order of prevalence from most numerous to least is:
    1. neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, eosinophils, basophils
    2. neutrophils eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, basophils
    3. neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
    4. lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils
    5. none of the above [top]

25. A white blood cell that is a primary component of the immune system, is characterized by a large, acentric nucleus and can give rise to plasma cells is the:
    1. neutrophil
    2. basophil
    3. eosinophil
    4. lymphocyte
    5. none of the above [top]

26. A disease state characterized by overproduction of nonfunctional white blood cells to the extent that bone marrow function is impaired is:
    1. leukemia
    2. leukopoiesis
    3. leukopenia
    4. leukocytosis
    5. none of the above [top]

27. The large cell with the multilobed nucleus that gives rise to platelets is the:
    1. reticuloycte
    2. megakaryocyte
    3. macrophage
    4. normoblast
    5. none of the above [top]

28. Hemophilia results from a disruption in which stage of hemostasis?
    1. vascular spasms
    2. platelet plug formation
    3. coagulation
    4. all of the above
    5. none of the above [top]

29. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
    1. monocyte
    2. neutrophil
    3. basophil
    4. eosinophil
    5. none of the above [top] [20]

30-39

30. Which of the following is not a contributing factor in preventing or limiting hemostasis?
    1. hemophilia
    2. hrombocytopenia
    3. thromboembolytic disorders
    4. impaired liver function
    5. none of the above [top]

31. The correct order for the products formed during the three phases of coagulation is:
    1. thrombin, prothrombin and fibrin
    2. prothrombin activator, thrombin and fibrin
    3. fibrinogen, fibrin and prothrombin activator
    4. prothrombin, thromboplastin and fibrinogen
    5. none of the above [top]

BATCH 961

Match the following.

39. Which sequence is correct for the following events?

1. fibrinogen -----> fibrin 2. clot retraction 3. formation of thromboplastin 4. prothrombin ----->thrombin

1. 3, 4, 1, 2
2. 1, 2, 3, 4
3. 4, 3, 1, 2
4. 3, 2, 1, 4
5. 4, 3, 2, 1 [top] [30]

40-49

40. Which of the following is important in clot retraction?
    1. heparin
    2. protein C
    3. antithrombin
    4. tissue plasminogen
    5. actomyosin [top]

41. Which of the following cells is a precursor of a basophil?
    1. megakaryoblast
    2. myeloblast
    3. lymphoblast
    4. normoblast [top]

42. Which of the following cells is a precursor of platelets?
    1. megakaryoblast
    2. myeloblast
    3. lymphoblast
    4. normoblast [top]

43. Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
    1. decreased tissue demand for oxygen
    2. increased tissue demand for oxygen
    3. an increased number of RBCs
    4. moving from a high altitude to a low altitude [top]

44. Which organ is required for erythropoiesis?
    1. stomach
    2. heart
    3. kidney
    4. pituitary
    5. ovaries [top]

45. Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?

1. vascular spasm
2. fibrinolysis
3. platelet plug formation
4. coagulation [top]

46. List one example for each of these three functions of blood.

distribution -

regulation -

protection - [top]

BATCH 941

[50-59] [60-69]

47. The final common pathway for formation of a blood clot is best described by which of the following choices?
    1. the release of a factor from damaged tissue which attracts platelets and leads to the formation of thromboplastin
    2. the release of a factor from platelets that have come in contact with damaged tissue which leads to the formation of thromboplastin
    3. the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen
    4. the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen due to the activity of thrombin
    5. the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen due to the activity of thrombin which is formed from prothrombin due to the activity of prothrombinase which is formed from thromboplastin acting on clotting factor X [top]

48. Which of the following is not a type of circulating blood cell?
    1. erythrocyte
    2. lymphocyte
    3. basophil
    4. neutrophil
    5. macrophage [top]

49. Lack of appropriate amounts of the following can potentially lead to anemia.
    1. iron & vitamin K
    2. iron & vitamin B₁₂
    3. iron, vitamin K & vitamin B₁₂
    4. iron & vitamin D
    5. iron, vitamin D, vitamin K & vitamin B₁₂ [top] [40]

_50-59

50. Binding of one subunit of hemoglobin to oxygen results in
    1. a fully loaded hemoglobin molecule carrying an oxygen molecule to the tissues.
    2. a decrease in affinity of the remaining subunits of hemoglobin for oxygen such that atoms of oxygen will bind the remaining three subunits quickly.
    3. a decrease in affinity of the remaining subunits of hemoglobin for oxygen such that molecules of oxygen will bind the remaining three subunits quickly.
    4. an increase in affinity of the remaining subunits of hemoglobin for oxygen such that atoms of oxygen will bind the remaining three subunits quickly.
    5. an increase in affinity of the remaining subunits of hemoglobin for oxygen such that molecules of oxygen will bind the remaining three subunits quickly. [top]

51. The final common pathway for formation of a blood clot is best described by which of the following choices?
    1. the release of a factor from damaged tissue which attracts platelets and leads to the formation of thromboplastin
    2. the release of a factor from platelets that have come in contact with damaged tissue which leads to the formation of thromboplastin
    3. the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen
    4. the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen due to the activity of thrombin
    5. the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen due to the activity of thrombin which is formed from prothrombin due to the activity of prothrombinase which is formed from thromboplastin acting on clotting factor X [top]

52. Which of the following blood types could receive A+ blood?
    1. A-
    2. B-
    3. O+
    4. AB-
    5. AB+ [top]

53. When red blood cells become old, they typically become trapped in the liver or spleen and are engulfed by a macrophage prior to cell lysis. The hemoglobin is broken down and recycled as follows.
    1. Iron is excreted in the bile.
    2. Hemoglobin is excreted in the urine.
    3. Iron is bound to transferrin and carried back to bone for incorporation into new hemoglobin, and amino acids are released into the bloodstream to be incorporated into new proteins.
    4. Urobilinogen is released from the macrophage for use in the formation of new hemoglobin in the bone marrow.
    5. Red blood cells are like neurons, they rarely die. When they do, they are excreted as whole dead cells in the feces. [top]

54. Biliverdin is
    1. a breakdown product of heme groups from hemoglobin that is recycled into new hemoglobin by the bone marrow.
    2. a breakdown product of heme groups from hemoglobin that gives bruises their yellow-green color.
    3. a breakdown product of heme groups from hemoglobin that is excreted in urine.
    4. a breakdown product of heme groups from hemoglobin that is excreted in bile.
    5. the name of famous dancer on Broadway during the 1960s — Billi Verdi [top]

55. Which of the following is not a type of circulating blood cell?
    1. erythrocyte
    2. lymphocyte
    3. basophil
    4. neutrophil
    5. macrophage [top]

56. Which of the following lists contains only normal constituents of plasma?
    1. water, oxygen, albumins, prothrombinase
    2. electrolytes, hormones, glucose, prothrombin, fibrinogen
    3. globulins, carbon dioxide, cholesterol, collagen
    4. urea, vitamins, hormones, platelet factor (PF3)
    5. None of the above lists contains only normal constituents of plasma. [top]

57. Which of the following phrases best defines agglutination?
    1. Attachment of antibodies to specific proteins on the membranes of cells such that long chains of cells and antibodies are formed that precipitate from a solution.
    2. Polymerization of long strands of fibrin from fibrinogen due to the actions of thrombin.
    3. Polymerization of long strands of fibrin from fibrinogen due to the actions of thromboplastin.
    4. Groups of red blood cells and platelets trapped within fibrin strands.
    5. A horrible allergic reaction to gluten. [top]

58. Which of the following is a function of blood?
    1. transports heat
    2. transports cholesterol both to and from tissues of the body following binding to lipoproteins
    3. transports CO₂ & urea from cells for excretion from body
    4. All of the above are functions of blood.
    5. None of the above are functions of blood. [top]

59. Clotting Factor IV is also known as
    1. fibrinogen.
    2. prothrombin.
    3. thromboplastin.
    4. Ca++.
    5. Christmas factor. [top] [50]

60-69

60. A reticulocyte is
    1. a precursor cell to platelets.
    2. a precursor cell to basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils.
    3. a precursor cell to erythrocytes.
    4. a precursor cell to monocytes.
    5. a cell in the reticule. [top]

61. Lack of appropriate amounts of the following can potentially lead to anemia.
    1. iron & vitamin K
    2. iron & vitamin B₁₂
    3. iron, vitamin K & vitamin B₁₂
    4. iron & vitamin D
    5. iron, vitamin D, vitamin K & vitamin B₁₂ [top]

62. What is largely responsible for the generation of colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood?
    1. antibodies
    2. electrolytes
    3. hormones
    4. large globular proteins
    5. colloidal gold [top]

63. What is largely responsible for the generation of colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood?
    1. antibodies
    2. electrolytes
    3. hormones
    4. cells and large globular proteins
    5. colloidal gold [top]

64. Blood doping is a practice among atheletes of withdrawing their blood several weeks before a major atheletic event such as a marathon, spinning down the RBCs, and reinfusing themselves with their own RBCs (minus the plasma) a few days before the competition in order to increase the oxygen carrying capacity of their blood. Explain how "blood doping" increases the odds for clotting problems such as stroke or embolism. Your answer should include some physics underlying blood flow. [top]

65. List all the blood types to which someone with A+ type blood can donate. [top]

66. List all the blood types that can be received by someone with A+ type blood. [top] [60]