ZOOL. 252 EXAM QUESTIONS - REPRO./DEVEL.

[1-9] [10-19] [20-29] [30-39] [40-49] [50-59] [60-69] [70-79] [80-89] [90-99] [100-109] [110-119] [120-129] [130-139] [140-149] [150-156]

[BATCH 931]

[BATCH 972]

[BATCH 961]

[BATCH 941]

[BATCH 962]

[Exam Questions - Information Page]

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webmaster: amills@utm.edu

BATCH 931

[1-9] [10-19] [20-29] [30-39] [40-49] [50-59]

1-10

1. When during the cell life cycle does DNA replicate (double)?
   1. interphase
   2. prophase
   3. anaphase
   4. telophase
   5. metaphase [top]

2. After DNA replicates, each strand is referred to as a:
   1. chromosome
   2. chromatin
   3. chromatid
   4. centromere
   5. gene [top]

3. Your maternal chromosomes are those that:
   1. are passed along to your daughter
   2. are passed along to all eggs
   3. originated in the egg from which you developed
   4. originated in the egg from which your mother developed
   5. are passed along to sperm containing an X chromosome [top]

4. The diploid chromosome number for humans is:
   1. 23
   2. 22
   3. 46
   4. 47
   5. 92 [top]

5. The period between the end of meiosis I and the beginning of meiosis II is known as:
   1. cytokinesis
   2. interkinesis
   3. interphase
   4. synapsis
   5. crossing over [top]

6. When do sister chromatids separate during meiosis?
   1. prophase I
   2. metaphase I
   3. anaphase I
   4. anaphase II
   5. telophase II [top]

7. The flagellum of the sperm develops in:

1. the diploid mother cell
2. primary spermatocytes
3. secondary spermatocytes
4. spermatogonia
5. spermatids [top]

8. What does the acrosome of the sperm contain?
   1. nucleus
   2. mitochondria
   3. hydrolytic enzymes
   4. flagella
   5. large stores of fructose [top]

9. Where does the meiosis portion of spermatogenesis take place?
   1. ductus deferens
   2. epididymis
   3. seminiferous tubules
   4. prostate gland
   5. seminal vesicles [top]

10-19

10. Which structure plays an important role in causing descent of the testes in a male fetus?
    1. epididymis
    2. gubernaculum
    3. spermatic cord
    4. ductus deferens
    5. scrotum [top]

11. The events associated with erection of the penis are directly controlled by:
    1. testosterone
    2. inhibin
    3. parasympathetic motor neurons
    4. sympathetic motor neurons [top]

12. Constriction of the urethral sphincter during ejaculation is controlled by:
    1. testosterone
    2. inhibin
    3. parasympathetic motor neurons
    4. sympathetic motor neurons [top]

13. A Pap smear is used to examine cells of the _________________ to detect cancer.
    1. endometrium
    2. myometrium
    3. perimetrium
    4. cervix
    5. vagina [top]

14. Lubrication during sexual intercourse, before ejaculation, is provided by __ in females & __ in males.
    1. cervical mucus glands; seminal vesicles
    2. cervical mucus glands; bulbourethral glands
    3. greater vestibular glands; bulbourethral glands
    4. greater vestibular glands; prostate gland
    5. endometrial mucus glands; seminal vesicles [top]

15. PRH directly stimulates:
    1. secretion of GnRH
    2. secretion of prolactin
    3. secretion of oxytocin
    4. production of milk
    5. ejection of milk [top]

16. Injection of which hormone will induce uterine contractions necessary for delivery of a baby?
    1. oxytocin
    2. prolactin
    3. estrogen
    4. progesterone
    5. relaxin [top]

17. Secretion of prolactin is directly stimulated by:
    1. a releasing hormone
    2. neural stimulation
    3. humoral stimulation
    4. estrogen
    5. relaxin [top]

18. Posterior pituitary hormones are secreted in response to:
    1. releasing hormones
    2. neural stimulation
    3. humoral stimulation
    4. negative feedback
    5. positive feedback [top]

19. Egg and sperm production are both directly stimulated by:
    1. LH
    2. FSH
    3. GnRH
    4. progesterone
    5. testosterone [top] [10]

20-29

20. Secretion of estrogen and testosterone are both directly stimulated by:
    1. LH
    2. FSH
    3. GnRH
    4. PRH
    5. PIH [top]

21. Besides the gonads, which endocrine gland is another source of testosterone?
    1. adrenal cortex
    2. adrenal medulla
    3. hypothalamus
    4. placenta
    5. pancreas [top]

22. The term "negative feedback" could be accurately applied to the ______ effect of ______ on ______.
    1. inhibitory; inhibin; FSH
    2. inhibitory; PIH; prolactin
    3. inhibitory; estrogen; GnRH
    4. stimulatory; estrogen; PRH
    5. stimulatory; GnRH; LH [top]

23. Female genitals develop in a fetus as a result of the_________________of__________________.
    1. presence; estrogen
    2. presence; progesterone
    3. presence; testosterone
    4. absence; testosterone
    5. absence; estrogen [top]

24. A target of relaxin is:
    1. cervix
    2. myometrium
    3. mammary glands
    4. urethral sphincter
    5. ductus deferens [top]

25. Androgen binding protein is produced by the ________________________ cells.
    1. Sertoli
    2. interstitial
    3. epididymis
    4. spermatogonia [top]

26. Decline in estrogen and progesterone triggers:
    1. menstrual phase
    2. ovulation
    3. proliferative phase
    4. secretory phase
    5. luteal phase [top]

27. Which hormone can have either a negative or a positive feedback effect, depending on how much is present?
    1. estrogen
    2. progesterone
    3. FSH
    4. LH
    5. GnRH [top]

28. Part of the endometrium is shed from the body during the:
    1. secretory phase
    2. proliferative phase
    3. luteal phase
    4. menstrual phase
    5. follicular phase [top]

29. The testes normally develop in a male fetus as a result of action of:
    1. testosterone
    2. inhibin
    3. androgen binding protein
    4. estrogen
    5. genes on the Y chromosome [top] [20]

30-39

30. The target of PIH is the:
    1. anterior pituitary
    2. posterior pituitary
    3. hypothalamus
    4. mammary glands
    5. ovaries [top]

31. The stage in sexual response that occurs in males but not in females is:
    1. erection
    2. orgasm
    3. ejaculation [top]

32. List and briefly explain the ovarian and uterine cycles, explaining the hormonal triggers for each phase. Does one cycle follow the other or do they occur simultaneously? Do male reproductive organs undergo similar cycles? [top]

33. Explain the two processes that occur during meiosis that result in genetic variability among the gametes produced, and at what stage of meiosis they occur. Do these processes also occur during mitosis? Why or why not? [top]

34. Choose the TRUE statement.
    1. genital herpes can be cured with antibiotics
    2. oogonia and spermatogonia originate in the embryonic yolk sac
    3. testes develop in a male fetus in response to the presence of testosterone
    4. endometriosis results from a bacterial infection
    5. gonads are not present until puberty [top]

35. The chromosomal abnormality that most consistently causes mental retardation is:
    1. Turner syndrome
    2. metafemale syndrome
    3. Klinefelter syndrome
    4. metamale syndrome [top]

36. An effect of human chorionic gonadotropin is to:
    1. stimulate secretion of GnRH
    2. stimulate growth of the placenta
    3. stimulate development of the embryo
    4. stimulate secretion of progesterone
    5. inhibit secretion of estrogen [top]

37. Choose the TRUE statement.
    1. the presence of a single sperm in an ejaculate is sufficient to fertilize an egg
    2. morula is the first stage of development with differentiated (specialized) cells
    3. trophoblast cells do not become part of the embryo itself
    4. the primordial germ cells derive from the mesoderm layer of the embryo
    5. the chorion develops from the ruptured ovarian follicle [top]

38. The primary germ layers (embryonic layers) of the embryo are the:
    1. amnion, yolk sac, and chorion
    2. allantois, amnion, and chorion
    3. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
    4. notochord, yolk sac, and amnion
    5. epiderm, endothelium, and dermatome [top]

39. Sunlight inhibits the secretion of ______________________________________.
    1. chorionic gonadotropin
    2. melatonin
    3. growth hormone
    4. calcitonin
    5. progesterone [top] [30]

40-49

40. Hypersecretion of growth hormone causes:
    1. acromegaly in children
    2. acromegaly in adults
    3. dwarfism in children
    4. gigantism in adults
    5. dwarfism in adults [top]

41. Calcitonin secretion is regulated by _____________________________ stimuli.
    1. hormonal
    2. neural
    3. humoral [top]

42. Haploid daughter cells are first produced from a diploid mother cell by the end of:
    1. meiosis I
    2. meiosis II
    3. mitosis [top]

43. The meiosis portion of oogenesis occurs in the:
    1. ovarian follicle
    2. oviduct
    3. endometrium
    4. fimbriae
    5. myometrium [top]

44. What is true about meiosis in males compared to females?
    1. begins later in life
    2. takes longer per mother cell to complete
    3. terminates earlier
    4. contains a multi-year suspension point
    5. results in less than 4 viable gametes per mother cell [top]

45. When the cremaster muscle contracts:
    1. the testes drop
    2. the testes elevate
    3. the scrotum wrinkles
    4. the scrotum becomes smooth [top]

46. Sexual response in males is controlled by:
    1. sympathetic motor neurons
    2. parasympathetic motor neurons
    3. both of the above
    4. none of the above [top]

47. The target of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is:
    1. anterior pituitary
    2. posterior pituitary
    3. gonads
    4. adrenal cortex
    5. adrenal medulla [top]

48. The hormone below regulated primarily by neural stimulation is:
    1. FSH
    2. LH
    3. oxytocin
    4. prolactin
    5. none of the above [top]

49. The source of the hormone relaxin is:
    1. anterior pituitary
    2. posterior pituitary
    3. placenta
    4. adrenal cortex
    5. corpus luteum [top]

50-59

50. What is the surest way to avoid becoming infected with sexually transmitted diseases?
    1. birth control pills
    2. condoms
    3. monogamy
    4. completely abstaining from sexual intercourse of any kind
    5. do not abuse injectable drugs [top] [40]

51. Select the FALSE statement.
    1. crossing-over results in unique chromosomes, different from those of the mother cell
    2. maternal chromosomes always migrate to the same cell pole during anaphase
    3. random assortment results in different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes
    4. gamete variability results from processes that occur during meiosis I
    5. a baby born with one X chromosome and no Y looks like a female [top]

52. Pregnancy tests using urine are based on detection of:
    1. estrogen
    2. progesterone
    3. HCG
    4. oxytocin [top]

53. The innermost embryonic membrane is the:
    1. yolk sac
    2. allantois
    3. chorion
    4. amnion [top]

54. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults results in:
    1. gigantism
    2. dwarfism
    3. acromegaly
    4. Turner syndrome
    5. diabetes mellitus [top]

55. The primary site of sperm production is the:
    1. ductus deferens
    2. epididymis
    3. seminiferous tubules
    4. urethra
    5. none of the above [top]

BATCH 972

[50-59] [60-69] [70-79]

56. Which of the following statements is true regarding the male and female urethras?
    1. the length of the urethra is the same in the male and female
    2. the urethra is longer in the female than in males
    3. the length of the urethra varies but gender makes no difference
    4. the male urethra is much longer than the female urethra
    5. none of the above [top]

57. Which of the following is a general characteristic of the process of meiosis?
    1. production of two diploid daughter cells
    2. homologous chromosomes pair to form tetrads
    3. one copy of each chromosome goes to each daughter cell
    4. the chromosome number is maintained in the daughter cells
    5. none of the above [top]

58. The stem cell which ultimately gives rise to mature sperm is the:
    1. spermatid
    2. spermatogonium
    3. primary spermatocyte
    4. secondary spermatocyte
    5. none of the above [top]

59. The cells in the testis that produce testosterone are the:
    1. Sertoli cells
    2. spermatogonia
    3. sustentacular cells
    4. interstitial (Leydig) cells
    5. none of the above [top] [50]

60-69

60. In the process of ovulation, which of the following is actually ejected from the ovary?
    1. primary oocyte
    2. secondary oocyte
    3. ovum
    4. oogonium
    5. none of the above [top]

61. The ruptured follicle that remains in the ovary following ovulation becomes the:
    1. corpus luteum
    2. corpus albicans
    3. corpus christie
    4. primary follicle
    5. none of the above [top]

62. Normally menstruation occurs when:
    1. plasma levels of estrogen ,
63. which of the following is unique to oogenesis?
    1. polar body formation
    2. gamete production occurs before birth
    3. only one functional gamete is produced for each round of meiosis
    4. all of the above
    5. none of the above [top]

64. In a normal diploid human cell, how many chromosomes are present?
    1. 23
    2. 46
    3. 69
    4. 92
    5. none of the above [top]

65. Which of the following is a major characteristic of the process of meiosis?
    1. introduces genetic variability
    2. maintains ploidy in the daughter cells
    3. reduces the chromosome number
    4. 1 and 3
    5. none of the above [top]

66. The name given to a mature ovarian follicle that is about to ovulate is:
    1. primordial follicle
    2. primary follicle
    3. Graafian follicle
    4. all of the above
    5. none of the above [top]

67. Mature sperm are termed:
    1. primary spermatocytes
    2. spermatogonia
    3. spermatozoa
    4. secondary spermatocytes
    5. none of the above [top]

68. The actual "trigger" for ovulation is:
    1. a surge in plasma progesterone levels
    2. a precipitous decline in plasma LH and FSH levels
    3. a surge in plasma LH and FSH levels
    4. a rapid decrease in plasma estrogen levels
    5. none of the above [top]

70-79

Match the best answer from the following list:

Identify or explain the following:

73. Endometrium[top]

74. Acrosome [top]

75. Second polar body [top]

BATCH 961

[70-79] [80-89] [90-99] [100-109]

76. This muscle layer will contract to wrinkle the scrotum surface...
    1. spermatic cord
    2. dartos
    3. pampiniform plexus
    4. cremaster [top]

77. The site of sperm production is the....
    1. sustentacular cells
    2. ductus deferens
    3. pampiniform plexus
    4. epididymis
    5. seminiferous tubules [top]

80-89

Match the following:

84. An abnormally low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause:
    1. decreased testosterone secretion.
    2. excessive beard growth.
    3. increased spermatogenesis.
    4. shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland. [top]

85. This accessory gland produces most of the volume of semen -
    1. epididymis
    2. prostate gland
    3. seminal vesicle
    4. bulbourethral gland
    5. ductus deferens [top]

86. This substance provides an antibiotic property to semen -
    1. prostaglandin
    2. seminal plasmin
    3. relaxin
    4. ascorbic acid [top]

90-99

Match the following

91. Which of the following produces and releases estrogen and progesterone?
    1. fimbriae
    2. uterus
    3. corpus albicans
    4. follicular cells
    5. corpus luteum [top]

92. Which of the following is not a region of the uterine tube?
    1. ampulla
    2. fundus
    3. isthmus
    4. infundibulum [top]

93. Which of the following would be present in the ovary of a 30 year old women just before ovulation?
    1. corpus albicans
    2. primordial follicle
    3. Graafian follicle
    4. b and c
    5. all of the above [top]

94. "Frozen" in meiosis I -
    1. primary oocyte
    2. secondary oocyte
    3. ovulated oocyte
    4. fertilized oocyte (ovum)
    5. a and b are correct [top]

95. Stage of development that stops in meiosis II -
    1. primary oocyte
    2. secondary oocyte
    3. ovulated oocyte
    4. fertilized oocyte (ovum) [top]

96. Completes meiosis II -
    1. primary oocyte
    2. secondary oocyte
    3. ovulated oocyte
    4. fertilized oocyte (ovum)
    5. polar body [top]

97. Which of the following contains a secondary oocyte?
    1. primordial follicle
    2. primary follicle
    3. secondary follicle
    4. graafian follicle
    5. none of the above [top]

98. Human egg and sperm are similar in that:
    1. about the same number of each are produced per month.
    2. they have the same degree of motility.
    3. they are about the same size.
    4. they have the same number of chromosomes. [top]

99. Fertilization generally occurs in:
    1. the uterus.
    2. the vagina.
    3. the fallopian tubes.
    4. the ovary. [top] [50] [90]

100-109

100. Each month, the time when a female is first fertile is when...
     1. progesterone levels peak
     2. estrogen levels are at there lowest level
     3. progesterone levels being to fall
     4. when leutinizing hormone levels have peaked and start to decline [top]

101. Normally menstruation occurs when:
     1. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease.
     2. blood levels of FSH fall off.
     3. blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase.
     4. the corpus luteum secretes estrogen. [top]

102. Which of the following occurs after ovulation?
     1. The corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone.
     2. The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
     3. The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins (LH and FSH) is low.
     4. All of the above are correct. [top]

103. All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except:
     1. FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium.
     2. estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle.
     3. the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation.
     4. a fall in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation. [top]

BATCH 962

[100-109] [110-119]

Match the following:

108. What two events during meiosis are responsible for genetic variability within the forming sperm cells? Describe how these events result in genetic variability. [top]

109. Describe three structures of the scrotum that are involved in maintaining the testicles at the ideal temperature for sperm production.[top] [50] [100]

110-119

110. Oogenesis involves:
     1. the formation of 4 haploid cells from a oogonium.
     2. the formation of a functional oocyte by increases the genetic material.
     3. the combining of sperm which the egg.
     4. formation of 4 haploid cells with only one surviving as the egg. [top]

111. The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that:
     1. during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced.
     2. the mature ovum is haploid while the sperm is diploid.
     3. in oogenesis, one mature egg is produced, and in spermatogenesis 4 sperm are produced.
     4. spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves mitosis only. [top]

112. Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?
     1. maximal LH secretion and menstruation
     2. maximal steroid secretion by the corpus luteum and menstruation
     3. early follicular development and the secretory phase in the uterus
     4. regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion
     5. none occur simultaneously [top]

113. Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.
     1. Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development.
     2. The follicle begins to secrete progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation.
     3. High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release.
     4. An estrogen surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte. [top]

BATCH 941

[110-119] [120-129] [130-139] [140-149] [150-156]

114. A cryptorchid testis should be surgically descended prior to puberty or removed after puberty because
     1. it just doesn't look right. This surgery is really just cosmetic.
     2. if it remains cryptorchid after puberty, it will be sterile.
     3. if it remains cryptorchid after puberty it might become cancerous.
     4. A and C.
     5. B and C. [top]

115. The function of the pampiniform plexus is
     1. to raise and lower the testes so that it will be warmer or cooler and maintain the testes at the appropriate temperature for spermatogenesis to occur.
     2. to cool the blood going to the testes and warm the blood coming from the testes.
     3. to add prostaglandins to semen.
     4. to convey sperm to the vas deferens.
     5. to confuse you. [top]

120-129

116. Leydig cells:
     1. are located between the seminiferous tubules and produce testosterone which helps spermatogenesis occur in the tubules.
     2. are located inside the seminiferous tubules and "nurse" the developing spermatocytes as they develop into spermatids.
     3. are located between the seminiferous tubules and produce inhibin which helps regulate pituitary hormone release.
     4. are located inside the seminiferous tubules and produce testosterone which helps developing spermatocytes develop into spermatids.
     5. are located in the rete testis to guide the maturing spermatids into the epididymis. [top]

117. Sertoli cells:
     1. are located between the seminiferous tubules and produce testosterone which helps spermatogenesis occur in the tubules.
     2. are located inside the seminiferous tubules and "nurse" the developing spermatocytes as they develop into spermatids.
     3. are located between the seminiferous tubules and produce inhibin which helps regulate pituitary hormone release.
     4. are located inside the seminiferous tubules and produce testosterone which helps developing spermatocytes develop into spermatids.
     5. are located in the rete testis to guide the maturing spermatids into the epididymis. [top]

Match the following:

122. The function of the blood-testis barrier is
     1. to prevent erythrocytes from entering the semen.
     2. to keep the testis about 3° cooler than the rest of the body to facilitate spermatogenesis.
     3. to keep sperm at an alkaline pH so that they will not become motile until they are ejaculated.
     4. to prevent an autoimmune reaction to sperm.
     5. none of the above [top]

123. The function of the cremaster muscle is
     1. to raise and lower the testes so that it will be warmer or cooler and maintain the testes at the appropriate temperature for spermatogenesis to occur.
     2. to cool the blood going to the testes and warm the blood coming from the testes.
     3. to add prostaglandins to semen.
     4. to convey sperm to the vas deferens.
     5. to help with chewing. It is a muscle in the jaw. [top]

124. Erection involves
     1. parasympathetic release of nitric oxide to dilate arterioles and fill the corpora with blood.
     2. a healthy cardiovascular system with sufficient blood pressure to fill the corpora and compress the veins to maintain enlargement.
     3. strictly the somatic (voluntary) nervous system; the autonomic nervous system is not involved in regulation of this event.
     4. A and B.
     5. B and C. [top]

125. Ejaculate of a healthy, fertile male contains
     1. no more than 10 million sperm plus sugar, salts and proteins.
     2. no more than 100 million sperm plus sugars, salts and proteins.
     3. 20 to 500 million sperm plus sugars, salts and proteins.
     4. more than 1000 million sperm plus sugars, salts and proteins.
     5. only sugars and salts; sperm are obtained from toilet seats. [top]

126. Mature, motile sperm, capable of fertilizing an oocyte after capacitation, are found
     1. in the lumen of the seminiferous tubules.
     2. in the rete testis.
     3. in the caput (head) of the epididymis.
     4. in the cauda (tail) of the epididymis.
     5. in all of the above. [top]

127. Semen contains contributions from
     1. the epididymis, the seminal vesicles, the bulbourethral glands and the bladder.
     2. the epididymis, the seminiferous vesicles, the prostate gland and the bulbourethral glands.
     3. the epididymis, the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland and the brunner's glands.
     4. the epididymis, the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland and the bladder.
     5. the epididymis, the seminal vesicles, the prostate gland and the bulbourethral glands. [top]

128. Which of the following are true statements about the menstrual cycle?
     1. The menstrual cycle is driven entirely by the ovary.
     2. The menstrual cycle is driven entirely by the hypothalamus.
     3. The menstrual cycle is regulated by interactions between hormones produced by the hypothalamus, the pituitary and the ovary.
     4. The menstrual cycle is regulated by interactions between hormones produced by the hypothalamus, the pituitary, the ovary and the uterus.
     5. The menstrual cycle is regulated by the phases of the moon. [top]

129. Menses is initiated by
     1. a new moon.
     2. ovulation.
     3. a decrease in LH and FSH.
     4. aging and incompetence in the endometrium.
     5. a decrease in estrogen and progesterone. [top] [50] [100] [120]

130-139

130. Estrogen feedback is
     1. always inhibitory to pituitary LH and FSH secretion.
     2. always stimulatory to pituitary LH and FSH secretion.
     3. inhibitory to pituitary LH and FSH secretion at low levels and stimulatory to pituitary LH and FSH secretion at high levels.
     4. inhibitory to pituitary LH and FSH secretion until uterine hormones alter the effect of estrogen at the pituitary to make it stimulatory to LH and FSH secretion.
     5. inhibitory to pituitary LH and FSH secretion until the moon is full when it suddenly becomes stimulatory to pituitary LH and FSH secretion. [top]

131. The role of estrogen is
     1. to increase progesterone receptors in the uterus during the menstrual cycle.
     2. to increase oxytocin receptors in the uterus near the end of pregnancy.
     3. to increase follicular growth and differentiation, preparing the follicle for ovulation.
     4. to cause secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, fat redistribution and long bone growth at puberty to occur.
     5. all of the above. [top]

132. The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by
     1. high levels of circulating progesterone.
     2. low levels of circulating progesterone.
     3. endometrial sloughing followed by growth.
     4. relatively high levels of FSH and LH.
     5. B, C and D. [top]

Match the following.

137. Which of the following are true statements about libido?

I. Libido is driven exclusively by gonadal hormones in both sexes. II. Libido can be driven by androgens in both males and females.

III. Libido always completely disappears after castration in males or ovariectomy in females. IV. Libido is always diminished in females after menopause.

1. I only.
2. II only.
3. I, III and IV.
4. II, III and IV.
5. I and III. [top]

138. LH stimulates
     1. granulosa cells in the follicle at the time of ovulation.
     2. Leydig cells in the testis.
     3. luteal cells in the corpus luteum.
     4. A and B.
     5. A, B and C. [top]

139. FSH stimulates
     1. the endometrium of the uterus.
     2. Leydig cells in the testis.
     3. luteal cells in the corpus luteum.
     4. Sertoli cells in the testis.
     5. All of the above. [top] [50] [100] [130]

140-149

140. For a woman with VERY regular, 28 day menstrual cycles (she can set the minute hand on her watch by the onset of menses) using the rhythm method of contraception, she and her partner should abstain from sex
     1. about 3 days a month centered around the day of her cycle that she normally ovulates.
     2. about 5 days a month centered around the day of her cycle that she normally ovulates.
     3. about 5 days a month, starting about three and half days before she normally ovulates.
     4. about 7 days a month starting precisely one week after the end of menses.
     5. about 7 days a month starting precisely one week before the predicted onset of menses. [top]

141. Polyspermy during fertilization is blocked by
     1. low sperm counts.
     2. acidic vaginal secretions.
     3. thick cervical mucosa.
     4. the cortical reaction in the egg.
     5. Polyspermy during fertilization isn't actually blocked. It happens quite often and ends in failure of pregnancy due to the inability of the chromosomes to line up during mitosis of the zygote. [top]

142. The presence of 2 polar bodies between the zona pellucida and the oocyte indicates
     1. that the oocyte is ready for fertilization to occur.
     2. that the oocyte has aged such that fertilization can no longer occur.
     3. that the oocyte has been fertilized.
     4. that the oocyte has one more meiotic division to undergo before it can be fertilized.
     5. that polar bears are around. [top]

143. The role of acrosomal enzymes is
     1. to disperse the cells of the corona radiata (cumulus cell complex).
     2. to dissolve holes in the zona pellucida.
     3. to catalyze the reaction between the sperm head and the sperm receptors on the surface of the oocyte.
     4. A and B.
     5. B and C. [top]

144. The medical community dates pregnancy from
     1. the moment of fertilization of the oocyte by a single sperm.
     2. the moment of the first cell division of the zygote.
     3. the date of the first missed menses.
     4. the date of the mother's last menses.
     5. the moment of the completion of meiosis II and fusion of the two pronuclei in the zygote. [top]

145. Parturition may be initiated by
     1. fluid buildup in the feet and legs, particularly if the mother stands or walks too much. The fluid buildup causes the release of atrial natriuretic peptide which alters the Na+ balance, thereby altering the excitability of the myometrial membrane triggering a muscle contraction.
     2. the fall in progesterone which previously prevented myometrial contractions.
     3. increased estrogen which helps the myometrium to develop lots of oxytocin receptors.
     4. releases of oxytocin from the mother's pituitary gland which can lead to production of prostaglandins within the myometrium.
     5. b, c, or d. [top]

146. The expulsion stage of labor is characterized by
     1. the performance of a procedure called a cesarean section.
     2. the expulsion of the placenta. This usually occurs 15-20 min. after the birth of the baby.
     3. regular contractions, breaking of the amniotic sac and dilation of the cervix.
     4. strong contractions and full dilation of the cervix ending in the birth of the child.
     5. an episiotomy by the gynecologist, no matter where he trained. [top]

147. Hormones that are made in the hypothalamus, transported down axons to the pituitary and then released are released from
     1. the adenohypophysis.
     2. the pars distalis.
     3. the pars intermedia.
     4. the pars nervosa.
     5. the pineal. [top]

148. Colostrum synthesis during pregnancy is initiated by
     1. prolactin which is responsible for milk letdown following parturition.
     2. oxytocin which is responsible for milk production following parturation.
     3. prolactin and oxytocin which are released in response to tactile stimulation of the mother's breast.
     4. human placental lactogen which is synthesized by the placenta and disappears from circulation following parturition.
     5. estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin from the placenta; following parturition these hormones are supplied by the anterior pituitary and ovary in response to the infant's sucking stimulus. [top]

149. Estrogen from the placenta
     1. ncreases prostaglandin synthesis within the myometrium in the weeks prior to parturition.
     2. "ripens" the cervix in the weeks prior to parturition.
     3. increases the number of oxytocin receptors in the uterus in the weeks prior to parturition.
     4. B and C.
     5. All of the above. [top] [50] [100] [140]

150-159

150. Braxton-Hicks contractions occur near the end of pregnancy due to
     1. fluid buildup in the feet and legs, particularly if the mother stands or walks too much. The fluid buildup causes the release of atrial natriuretic peptide which alters the Na+ balance, thereby altering the excitability of the myometrial membrane triggering a muscle contraction.
     2. the fall in progesterone which previously prevented myometrial contractions.
     3. spontaneous, small releases of prostaglandins from the mother's pituitary gland if the myometrium has developed lots of prostaglandin receptors.
     4. spontaneous, small releases of oxytocin from the mother's pituitary gland if the myometrium has developed lots of oxytocin receptors.
     5. lies told to the mother; that's why they are called false labor pains. [top]

151. When contractions finally begin occurring regularly,
     1. the birth will occur within minutes, even though the contractions may be more than 30 minutes apart. This is called the expulsion stage of labor.
     2. the birth may not occur for hours depending on how long it takes for full cervical dilation. This is called the dilation stage of labor.
     3. contractions should be about 1 minute long occurring every 2-3 minutes with the fetus entering the birth canal. This is called the dilation stage of labor.
     4. doctors will often break the amniotic sac to initiate labor.
     5. take aspirin and put her feet up. She is probably in false labor. [top]

152. Describe the early events of pregnancy during days 4-10 after fertilization. [top]

153. Relate the ovarian and uterine cycles to each other and to the hormonal changes regulating the menstrual cycle. [top]

154. What does the placenta do? [top]

155. What determines whether a woman should take estrogen alone or estrogen plus progesterone for hormone replacement therapy? What are the advantages of hormone replacement therapy? Why is progesterone sometimes added to estrogen for hormone replacement therapy? [top]

156. How can one determine if there is a physical or psychological cause for impotence? [top] [50] [100] [150]